Review Note
Last Update: 09/24/2023 08:11 AM
Current Deck: Clinical Questions (General)
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Commit #18612You
are seeing a 57 year old man with a right inguinal hernia in clinic. The hernia
causes mild pain intermittently but has never been obstructed and is easily
reducible. You decide to book him for an elective repair. When you ask about
his past medical history, he tells you that he takes warfarin for atrial
fibrillation. He has never had a cerebrovascular accident.
Describe your
approach to managing this patient’s anticoagulation both pre and post
operatively.