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Status Last Update Fields
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Supine; Bell): Identify:[sound:01 Apex, Normal S1 S2, Supine, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Single S1 S2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Supine; Bell):Identify:[sound:02 Apex, Split S1, Supine, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Split S1}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Supine; Bell):Identify:[sound:04 Apex, Mid Sys Click, Supine, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Mid-systolic click}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Supine; Bell):Identify:[sound:06 Apex, Early Sys Mur, Supine, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Early systolic murmur}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Supine; Bell):Identify:[sound:07 Apex, Mid Sys Mur, Supine, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Mid-systolic murmur}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Supine; Bell):Identify:[sound:08 Apex, Late Sys Mur, Supine, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Late systolic murmur}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Supine; Bell):Identify:[sound:09 Apex, Holo Sys Mur, Supine, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Holosystolic murmur}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Left Decubitus; Bell):Identify:[sound:03 Apex, S4, LLD, Bell.mp3]{{c1::S4 gallop}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Left Decubitus; Bell):Identify:[sound:05 Apex, S3, LLD, Bell.mp3]{{c1::S3 gallop}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Left Decubitus; Bell):Identify:[sound:10 Apex, Sys Click Late Sys Mur, LLD, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Systolic click with late systolic murmur}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Left Decubitus; Bell):Identify:[sound:11 Apex, S4 Mid Sys Mur, LLD, Bell.mp3]{{c1::S4 and mid-systolic murmur}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Left Decubitus; Bell):Identify:[sound:12 Apex, S3 Holo Sys Mur, LLD, Bell.mp3]{{c1::S3 and holosystolic murmur}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Apex (Left Decubitus; Bell):Identify:[sound:13 Apex, OS Dias Mur, LLD, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Mitral opening snap and diastolic murmur}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Aortic Area (Sitting; Bell):Identify:[sound:14 Aortic, Normal S1 S2, Sitting, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Normal S1 and S2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Aortic Area (Sitting; Bell):Identify:[sound:15 Aortic, Sys Mur Absent S2, Sitting, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Systolic murmur with absent S2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Aortic Area (Sitting; Bell):Identify:[sound:16 Aortic, Early Dias Mur, Sitting, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Early diastolic murmur}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Aortic Area (Sitting; Bell):Identify:[sound:17 Aortic, Sys Dias Mur, Sitting, Bell.mp3]{{c1::Combined systolic and diastolic murmurs}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Pulmonic Area (Supine; Diaphragm):Identify:[sound:18 Pulm, Single S2, Supine, Diaph.mp3]{{c1::Single S2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Pulmonic Area (Supine; Diaphragm):Identify:[sound:19 Pulm, Spilt S2 Persistent, Supine, Diaph.mp3]{{c1::Split S2 Persistent}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Pulmonic Area (Supine; Diaphragm):Identify:[sound:20 Pulm, Spilt S2 Transient, Supine, Diaph.mp3]{{c1::Split S2 Transient}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Pulmonic Area (Supine; Diaphragm):Identify:[sound:21 Pulm, Eject Sys Mur Trans Split S2, Supine, Diaph.mp3]{{c1::Ejection systolic murmur with transi…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Pulmonic Area (Supine; Diaphragm):Identify:[sound:22 Pulm, Split S2 Eject Sys Mur, Supine, Diaph.mp3]{{c1::Systolic ejection murmur with persistent s…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Pulmonic Area (Supine; Diaphragm):Identify:[sound:23 Pulm, Eject Sys Mur Single S2 Eject Click, Supine, Diaph.mp3]{{c1::Ejection systolic murmur wit…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 A(n) {{c1::sinonasal papilloma}} is a benign tumor of the squamous mucosa of the sinuses that is thought to be due to HPV infection
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Laryngeal papillomas}} are benign papillary squamous proliferations commonly found on the {{c1::true}} vocal cords; they are associated with HPV…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Koilocytes}} have characteristic {{c2::perinuclear}} halos that are hallmarks of {{c3::HPV}} infections
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Levothyroxine}} is a recombinant form of T4 that serves as a thyroxine replacement. It has agonist action at thyroid hormone receptors
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Condyloma acuminata is most commonly caused by {{c1::HPV6 or HPV11::2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What types of HPV are the cause of HPV-related vulvar carcinoma?{{c1::High risk HPVs (16, 18, 31, 33)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which type of vulvar carcinoma is typically seen in women of reproductive age?{{c1::HPV}}-related
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the most common cause of vaginal carcinoma?{{c1::High-risk HPV subtypes (16, 18, 31, 33)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)}} is a dysplastic pre-cancerous lesion of the cervix that commonly manifests following the loss of the …
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What are the most common types of high-risk HPV?{{c1::HPV16, HPV18::2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What are the most common types of low-risk HPV?{{c1::HPV6, HPV11}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the most common type of cervical carcinoma?{{c1::Squamous cell carcinoma (80%)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the gold standard procedure for screening for cervical carcinoma?{{c1::Pap smear}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which major subtypes of HPV are covered by the current vaccine (Gardasil 9)?{{c1::HPV 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33::x6}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What are the 4 most common causes of CIN and cervical carcinoma?{{c1::HPV 16, 18, 31, 33 (high risk HPV)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the cancer risk associated with HPV 42-44?{{c1::Low}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What urogenital disorder is associated with low-risk HPV subtypes?{{c1::Condylomas/warts}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Koilocytes}} are a cytologic feature of HPV infected cells and involve a nucleus with a 'raisin-like' shape
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the most common risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?{{c1::High-risk HPV [16, 18, 31, 33] (66% of cases)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Besides high-risk HPV, what is the second most major risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?{{c1::Lack of circumcision and poorly mainta…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Verruca (warts)}} are soft, flesh-colored, cauliflower-like papules that appear on the skin due to HPV infection of keratinocytes
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the cause of verruca (warts)?{{c1::HPV 1-4::Specific}} infection of {{c1::keratinocytes}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)}} is an autosomal trisomy that is associated with rocker-bottom feet and {{c2::microphthalmia::eyes}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)}} is an autosomal trisomy that is associated with {{c2::cleft lip::face}} and {{c2::cleft palate::face}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which stain is used to visualize Trypanosomes?{{c1::Giemsa}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which selective culture medium/agar is used to isolate Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Neisseria meningitidis?{{c1::Thayer-Martin (VPN) medium::2 names}…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Rickettsia spp.}}, {{c2::Chlamydia spp.}}, and Coxiella are obligate intracellular, pleomorphic, gram-negative bacteria that cannot make their o…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the urease expression of Staphylococcus epidermidis?{{c1::Positive}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Staphylococcus saprophyticus is urease {{c1::positive::positive or negative}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the novobiocin sensitivity of Staphylococcus saprophyticus?{{c1::Resistant}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the novobiocin sensitivity of Staphylococcus epidermidis?{{c1::Sensitive}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Preformed enterotoxins::Which exotoxin}} from {{c2::Staphylococcus aureus}} causes {{c3::rapid::rapid or slow}}-onset food poisoning
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which Staphylococcus species is the 2nd most common cause of uncomplicated UTI in young females?{{c1::Staphylococcus saprophyticus}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Where in the body are Group D Streptococci normally found?{{c1::Colon (GI) and urogenital (GU)::2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Subacute endocarditis}} is a cardiac complication caused by {{c3::group D Streptococci (Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium)}} follow…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which toxin from Clostridium tetani causes tetanus?{{c1::Tetanospasmin}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Granulomatosis infantiseptica}} is a complication of {{c2::Listeria monocytogenes}} infection in neonates that involves the formation of dissemi…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Pott disease}} is a possible complication of extrapulmonary tuberculosis that involves spread of infection to {{c2::vertebral bodies}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What color colonies do lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria yield on MacConkey agar?{{c1::Pink}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which Neisseria species ferments glucose and maltose?{{c1::Neisseria meningitidis}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::IgA protease}} is a protein secreted by Neisseria spp. that functions to cleave secreted host Ig{{c2::A}} at its {{c2::hinge}} region
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Neisseria gonorrhoeae::Which species of Neisseria}} is often found intracellularly in {{c2::neutrophils (PMNs)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Neisseria {{c1::meningitidis}} has a polysaccharide capsule, which inhibits {{c2::phagocytosis}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Neisseria {{c1::gonorrhoeae}} has no {{c3::vaccine}} due to rapid antigenic variation of {{c2::pilus}} proteins
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which serotype of Neisseria meningitidis, up until 2014, lacked a vaccine?{{c1::Type B}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Neisseria {{c2::meningitidis}} is transmitted via {{c1::respiratory}} and {{c1::oral}} secretions
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome}} is a rare complication of {{c3::pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)}} that involves inflammation of the {{c2::liver}} …
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Neonatal conjunctivitis}} due to {{c2::Neisseria gonorrhoeae}} infection during childbirth occurs {{c3::early::early/late}} ({{c3::2}}-{{c3::5}}…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Septic arthritis}}, most commonly of the {{c1::knee}}, is a musculoskeletal complication of Neisseria {{c2::gonorrhoeae}} infection
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the treatment for Neisseria meningitidis?{{c1::Ceftriaxone}} or {{c2::penicillin G}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What organism causes relapsing fever?{{c1::Borrelia recurrentis}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 How is relapsing fever (Borrelia recurrentis) transmitted?{{c1::Louse}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which pet animals are especially associated with Campylobacter infection?{{c1::Puppies}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Q fever}} is a Rickettsial-like disease that can be obtained via aerosolized spores released from livestock amniotic fluid
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Q fever}} is a rickettsial-like disorder caused by Coxiella burnetii that presents as pneumonia
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis are associated with neonatal conjunctivitis?{{c1::D-K}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Mucormycosis}} is an opportunistic fungal infection that is mostly seen in DKA and leukemic patients
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Mucormycosis}} is an opportunistic fungal infection that presents with headache, facial pain, and a black necrotic eschar on the face
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What medication(s) is/are first-line for prophylaxis and treatment for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia?{{c1::TMP-SMX}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Toxoplasmosis}} is a CNS protozoal infection that presents with brain abscesses in {{c2::immunocompromised (e.g. HIV)}} patients; seen as ring-e…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei is from East Africa?{{c1::Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei is from West Africa?{{c1::Trypanosoma brucei gambiense}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::African sleeping sickness}} is a CNS protozoal infection caused by Trypanosoma brucei subspecies that is diagnosed by a blood smear
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Trypanosoma cruzi}} is the etiology of {{c2::Chagas disease}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Chagas}} disease is a visceral protozoal infection that presents with {{c2::dilated}} cardiomyopathy, mega{{c3::colon}}, and mega{{c3::esophagus…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Where (geographically) does Chagas disease predominantly occur?{{c1::South America}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 How is Chagas disease (Trypanosoma cruzi) transmitted?{{c1::Reduviid bug feces (AKA "kissing bug")}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Chagas disease}} is a visceral protozoal infection that is diagnosed by the visualization of {{c2::Trypanosoma cruzi::bug}} on a(n) {{c3::periph…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What pathogen is the most common etiology of infectious mononucleosis?{{c1::EBV}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Infectious mononucleosis}} due to EBV virus infection presents with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Infectious mononucleosis}} is a disease caused by EBV that is also commonly referred to as "kissing disease" as it is often seen in teens and yo…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which herpesvirus is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma?{{c1::EBV (HHV-4)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which herpesvirus causes mononucleosis with a negative monospot test?{{c1::CMV (HHV-5)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which herpesvirus is associated with causing retinitis in immunocompromised patients?{{c1::CMV}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which herpesvirus is associated with characteristic owl's eye inclusions in infected cells?{{c1::CMV (HHV-5)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::CMV}} is a herpesvirus that is latent in mononuclear cells
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which serological antigen from Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is produced if the infection is active and productive?{{c1::Viral capsid antigen (VCA)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which serological antigen from EBV is seen in latent infection?{{c1::Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA)}} is a serological antigen from EBV that contributes to Hodgkin or Burkitt lymphoma
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::CMV}} is a herpesvirus that causes retinitis in HIV patients that presents with cotton-wool spots on fundoscopy
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Esophagitis}} and {{c2::colitis}} are GI complications that are often seen alongside CMV retinitis in immunosuppressed patients
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Primary CNS lymphoma}} is a lymphoma often associated with EBV that can present as focal/solitary lesions, thereby differentiating it from toxop…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Squamous cell carcinoma}} is a cancer caused by HPV in HIV patients that often presents at the anus (in MSMs) or the cervix
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Cytomegalovirus (CMV)}} is a herpesvirus that causes interstitial pneumonia in patients with HIV
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Where on the body is Staphylococcus epidermidis found?{{c1::Skin}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What food sources are associated with Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning?{{c1::Meats and cream-based food (e.g. mayonnaise, custard)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::S. aureus and S. epidermidis::Which strains of bacteria (2)}} are associated with {{c2::osteomyelitis}} in patients that have received a prosthe…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Streptococcus agalactiae}}, {{c2::Escherichia coli}}, and {{c3::Listeria monocytogenes}} are bacteria that all cause meningitis in neonates
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 How is CMV transmitted?{{c1::Sexual contact}}; {{c2::organ transplant}}; {{c3::vertically through placenta}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Rubella}}, Toxoplasma, and {{c2::CMV}} are 3 ToRCHeS infections that are associated with a "blueberry muffin" rash
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::CMV}} is a ToRCHeS infection that presents with chorioretinitis, hearing loss, seizures, and petechial, "blueberry muffin" rash
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Condyloma acuminata is an STD caused by HPV6 or HPV11 that presents with {{c2::anogenital warts::gross pathology}} and {{c2::koilocytes::cellular path…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Neisseria gonorrhoeae}} is an STI that presents with urethritis, cervicitis, prostatitis, and a white, creamy purulent discharge
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the etiology of syphilis?{{c1::Treponema pallidum}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which 2 bacteria are the most common causes of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?{{c1::Chlamydia trachomatis}} (subacute; often undiagnosed); {{c2::Ne…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which bacteria often causes subacute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and hence often goes undiagnosed?{{c1::Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)}} is a genitourinary disorder caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae that presents with pur…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Pseudomonas aeruginosa}} is a gram-negative nosocomial bacterial infection that has respiratory therapy equipment as a risk factor
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which herpesvirus is associated with infecting an organ transplant recipient?{{c1::CMV (HHV-5)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Pseudomembranous colitis}} is a GI complication of ampicillin use that results from overgrowth of Clostridioides difficile in the GI tract
Removal Requested 03/30/2024 Which 3rd generation cephalosporin is used to treat meningitis and gonorrhea?{{c1::Ceftriaxone}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 How do cephalosporin antibiotics influence the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides?{{c1::Increase their toxicity}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which bacterial ribosomal subunit is targeted by chloramphenicol?{{c1::50S}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the primary clinical use of tetracycline antibiotics?{{c1::Borrelia burgdorferiMycoplasma pneumoniaeRickettsia (intracellular bug)Chlamydiae (…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Tetracyclines}} are a class of protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotics that are effective against intracellular organisms by virtue of their ab…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the MOA of chloramphenicol?{{c1::Blocks peptidyl transferase at the 50S ribosomal subunit}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Anemia}} (dose-dependent) and {{c1::aplastic anemia}} (dose-independent) are hematological complications of chloramphenicol use
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Gray baby syndrome}} is a complication of chloramphenicol use in premature infants as they lack hepatic {{c2::UDP-glucuronosyltransferase}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the mechanism of chloramphenicol resistance?{{c1::Plasmid-encoded acetyltransferases that inactivate the drug}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Pseudomembranous colitis}} is a possible complication of clindamycin use due to resultant Clostridioides difficile overgrowth
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Fluoroquinolones}} are a class of antibiotics that can possibly cause leg cramps and myalgias along with cartilage damage
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The treatment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae is {{c1::ceftriaxone}} ± either {{c3::doxycycline::first-line}} or {{c2::azithromycin::second-line}} for confi…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the treatment for Chagas disease (Trypanosoma cruzi)?{{c1::Benznidazole > nifurtimox::2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which viral enzyme monophosphorylates acyclovir/famciclovir/valacyclovir, thereby activating it?{{c1::Thymidine kinase}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the mechanism of resistance to acyclovir/famciclovir/valacyclovir?{{c1::Mutated/absent thymidine kinase}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Foscarnet}} is an antiviral agent that acts as a viral {{c3::DNA polymerase}} inhibitor by binding to the {{c2::pyrophosphate}}-binding sit…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the mechanism of action of cidofovir?{{c1::Preferential direct inhibition of viral DNA polymerase}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Fluoroquinolones}} are a class of antibiotics that are avoided in pregnancy as they cause cartilage damage
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Chloramphenicol}} is an antibiotic that is avoided in pregnancy as it causes "gray baby" syndrome
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Aplasia cutis}} is a possible teratogenic complication of methimazole if given in the first trimester
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 On which day after fertilization is the zygote formed?{{c1::1}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 On which day(s) following fertilization is the morula formed?{{c1::4}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 On which day(s) following fertilization is the blastocyst formed?{{c1::5}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 On which day(s) following fertilization does implantation occur?{{c1::6-10}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 During which week of gestation does gastrulation occur?{{c1::3}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 During which week of gestation does the primitive streak appear?{{c1::Week 3}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Typically, on which day post fertilization do hCG levels rise to detectable levels in serum?{{c1::8}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the embryonic origin of the spinal cord? {{c1::Neural tube (neuroectoderm)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the embryonic origin of the alveoli, epithelium of trachea / bronchi? {{c1::Endoderm}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which strains of HPV are associated with cervical dysplasia or carcinoma in situ?{{c1::HPV16; HPV18::2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which antacid is associated with hyporeflexia, hypotension, and cardiac arrest if overused?{{c1::Magnesium hydroxide}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c1::Preterm Premature Rupture of Membranes (PPROM)}} is a preterm pregnancy with premature rupture of membranes before the onset of contractions
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the estimated week of gestation if the measured fundal height is at the navel?{{c1::20 weeks}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the likely diagnosis?{{c1::Cellulitis}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Best next step in management?{{c1::Scrape skin and view under light microscopy}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the likely diagnosis?{{c1::Toxic epidermal necrolysis}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What birth weight is considered macrosomia?{{c1::>4000g (or >8lbs 13oz)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Admitted mothers are always given betamethasone (BMZ) before what gestational age?{{c1::≤ 34 weeks}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What are Braxton Hicks contractions?{{c1::Uterine contractions w/o cervical changes}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the classic triad of signs of placental separation (during delivery)?{{c1::Cord lengtheningGushing of vaginal bloodUterine fundal rebound}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the nitrazine test for rupture of membranes (ROM)?{{c1::pH indication of amniotic fluid; alkaline amniotic fluid turns it blue}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 If rupture of membranes (ROM) has occurred, you can confirm with the following:- {{c1::Vaginal pooling}} via speculum exam- {{c1::Nitrazine}} positive…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What are the "3 P's" for the causes of abnormal labor?{{c1::Power (uterine contractions)Passenger (fetus)Passage (pelvis)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the cause of late fetal heart rate decelerations?{{c1::Uteroplacental insufficiency → insufficient fetal blood flow/oxygenation}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the contraindication for prostaglandin F2α (hemabate) in postpartum hemorrhage?{{c1::Asthma}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)?{{c1::Anovulatory cycles}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What malignancy must be ruled out in all postmenopausal women with uterine bleeding?{{c1::Endometrial carcinoma}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the treatment for anovulatory bleeding?{{c1::Medroxyprogesterone acetate}} or {{c1::OCPs}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What procedure offers a definitive diagnosis for endometriosis?{{c1::Diagnostic laparoscopy}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which antidiabetic is used to treat infertility in polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?{{c1::Metformin}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What class of drugs is known to prevent ovarian cancer?{{c1::OCPs}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 How is ectopic pregnancy diagnosed?{{c1::Quantitative β-hCGTransvaginal ultrasound (TVUS)::Two diagnostic steps}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the only IUD that can increase bleeding?{{c1::Paragard (copper IUD)}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which imaging study is most sensitive for pyloric stenosis?{{c1::Ultrasound}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the diagnosis in an infant with an omega-shaped epiglottis and collapse of the supraglottic structures during inspiration? It is improved by p…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Follicular conjunctivitis and pannus (neovascularization) formation in the cornea are seen with {{c1::trachoma}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the most important first step in management for patients with somatic symptom disorder?{{c1::Schedule regular monthly visits to establish a si…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Which antipsychotic medication occasionally causes hypothermia by disrupting thermoregulation and the body's shivering mechanism?{{c1::Fluphenazine}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the management for patellofemoral pain syndrome in the recovery phase?{{c1::PT and strength training with cycling::2}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The most likely atypical antipsychotic to cause tardive dyskinesia is {{c1::risperidone}}, and the least likely is {{c1::clozapine}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 What is the treatment for viral gastroenteritis?{{c1::Rehydration (PO preferred, IV if severe)}}Can consider adding Medication to aid in oral hyd…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Conditions that cause {{c1::vomiting}} include infection, medication, vestibular dysfunction, and chemoradiation
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The {{c1::nucleus tractus solitarius}}, AKA vomiting center (located in the medulla) receives main inputs from: 1. {{c2::GI tract (via CN X)}} 2.…
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The nucleus tractus solitarius projects neurons to other medullary nuclei to coordinate the {{c1::vomiting}} response
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The GI tract directly communicates with the nucleus tractus solitarius via the {{c1::vagus}} nerve (CN {{c1::X}})
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 GI irritation, due to infection, chemotherapy, or distension, causes mucosal {{c1::serotonin}} release
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Serotonin activates {{c1::5-HT3}} receptors on the vagal afferents, which relay their impulse to the nucleus tractus solitarius
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The vestibular system communicates directly with the nucleus tractus solitarius via the {{c1::vestibulocochlear}} nerve (CN {{c1::VIII}})
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The vestibular system is responsible for {{c1::vertigo}} and motion sickness (vestibular nausea)
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The {{c1::area postrema}} (chemoreceptor trigger zone) is located adjacent to the nucleus tractus solitarius in the {{c2::4th}} ventricle
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The area postrema (chemoreceptor trigger zone) responds to {{c1::emetogenic}} substances (e.g. chemotherapeutic agents)
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 {{c2::Ondansetron}} antagonizes the {{c1::5-HT3}} receptor on vagal afferents in the GI tract
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Ondansetron is used to treat {{c1::chemotherapy}} or {{c1::post-operative}} induced nausea and vomiting
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Ondansetron may cause {{c1::constipation::GI}} and {{c1::headache/dizziness::cranial}} as possible side effects
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Ondansetron can prolong the {{c1::QT}} interval and induce {{c1::torsades de pointes}}
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 Ondansetron may cause {{c1::serotonin syndrome}}, which presents with symptoms including rigidity, tremor, hyperthermia, and confusion
Removal Requested 03/29/2024 The vestibular system contains {{c1::H1}} histamine receptors, which are coupled to {{c2::Gq}}
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